YHWH the Father, the Only Eternal One

By John Zecca

I am writing this article in response to an article written by Richard Jones, but also in response to all those who call on the name of YHWH who have the false idea that somehow Yahushua was YHWH in the flesh or existed eternally as elohim. I can almost guarantee no such debates took place among the Apostles or the ancient Israelites who believed the "Shema". Because space is limited, I will only highlight some major scriptures. A lot of research will have to be done by the reader. One must never accept the words of man, but must check things out for themselves.

Deut. 6:4 - "Hear O Israel, YHWH our elohim YHWH is one."

Deut. 4:39 - "And you shall know today and shall recall to your heart that YHWH himself is elohim in the heavens above and on the earth beneath; there is none else."

No passages in scripture can be any plainer than these, yet many today who believe in a "2 in 1" or "3 in 1" will tell you otherwise. The Tanakh is full of passages talking about YHWH and his anointed, but Deut. 6:4 is talking about YHWH alone. NO mention of Yahushua or YHWH’s anointed being part of this passage. Many claim that one doesn’t really mean one - but two or three depending on the doctrine of the person. The name YHWH literally means eternal or self - existent (#3068 in Strong’s Concordance). The scripture never teaches that there are others who have this quality. Oh yes, if one already believes in a "2 in 1 or 3 in 1" elohim, one can go to the New Testament (which we will) and find passages that supposedly prove this. To do so, they will have to throw away or misinterpret so many other clear passages.

In John 10:30 Yahushua says, "I and my Father are one." Richard Jones states that Yahushua was claiming to be elohim. In fact, not an elohim, but the very elohim that Yahushua said was his father in John 17:3. Because the hearers of that statement misunderstood the words of Yahushua, does not make it so. The Jews and the disciples constantly misunderstood the words of Yahushua and he had to explain the true meaning to them. He does so in John 10:34 - 36. Yahushua never claimed to be elohim, but the son of elohim. There is a big difference as he pointed out to the Jews quoting Psalm 82. You see, in Psalm 82, YHWH Himself called those men (judges) elohim because they had the authority to act on the behalf of YHWH, not because they were YHWH. Many besides YHWH were called elohim and no one ever thought they were the Almighty Himself.

In John 17:22 Yahushua prayed that his disciples would be one just as he and his father are one. How is this to be done? Are his disciples going to become one person? One being with various manifestations? Of course not! Simply they would be one in purpose, goals, love, etc. Nothing mysterious about that if taken in context. In fact, the Lamsa’s reads, "I and my Father are of one accord." So lets lay that scripture to rest in trying to argue that Yahushua is YHWH.

Getting back to John 17:3, Yahushua again is praying, and listen to his prayer. "And this is everlasting life, that they might know you the only true elohim, and Yahushua the messiah whom you have sent." Who did Yahushua say was the only true elohim? His father of course! Yahushua believed and understood just what Deut 6:4 and other scriptures taught. He did not say "this is everlasting life that they might know us the only true elohim." According to Yahushua himself, eternal life is knowing who the only true elohim is. If Yahushua was part of the true elohim he could never make such a statement. He was the Messiah and his Father is the only true elohim.

Another clear passage is found in Mark 12:28-34. In this passage, a scribe asks Yahushua which is the first commandment, and this is Yahushua’s response. "The first of all the commands is, ‘Hear O Israel YHWH our elohim YHWH is one. And you shall love YHWH your elohim with all your heart and with all your being, and with all your mind, and with all your strength.’ This is the first command." Notice how Yahushua quotes the "Shema". He takes no credit for being the one elohim. What a perfect time to set them all straight and tell them he was YHWH in the flesh. Now listen to the response of the scribe, "Well said teacher. You have spoken the truth, for there is one elohim, and there is no other besides him." Yahushua never said that there was no other besides YHWH when he quoted Deut. 6:4-6, but this is implied in the "Shema". Yahushua affirmed the response of the scribe indicating he too believed there was no other besides YHWH. My question is no other what? If we thing logically and scripturally it has to be no other true elohim or no other eternal self-existent one. That is why there can only be one YHWH. His name identifies his character. No other being can lay claim to self-existence, not even Yahushua himself. Yahushua repeatedly claimed that his authority came from his father and was not his own. John 5:27, Matthew 28:18, etc.

The author used John 8:58 to support his claims, so I will address it now. He claims that Yahushua’s statement is the same as the expression "I am Who I am," in Exodus 3:14, but if one looks this up in the Septuagint, the Greek translation of the Tanach, you will find Yahushua only used the first part of this expression which is used too many times to mention by many people in the scriptures.

Mr. Jones is in error in his claim. The fact that they wanted to stone Yahushua was not because he said, "Before Abraham was, I am." He had said many things before this to anger them and this was just one more statement that upset them. Look at John 8:40. "But now you seek to kill me, a man that hath told you the truth, which I have heard of elohim, this did not Abraham." Why did they seek to kill Yahushua? Because he claimed to be elohim in the flesh? Because he claimed to be YHWH #2? Maybe because he claimed to be a physical manifestation of YHWH? NO!! They wanted to kill him because he was a man who told them the truth. This was well before John 8:58. Read the entire chapter and listen to his claims. Never once does he say he was YHWH or part of a 2 in 1 elohim. John 8:58 if translated correctly simply shows the Yahushua pre-existed. So what? Pre-existence does not mean eternal. YHWH is eternal. Let me repeat, he did not say the words that YHWH said to Moses, but only the "I am" which merely introduces the rest of the sentence. In fact, the Septuagint reads, "I am the Being.". Yahushua simply used the "I am" part used by many. You need to look this up for yourself.

Now on to John 1:1 which the author and many in Christianity use to support their false belief. This is the one verse that requires looking into the Greek since there are debates amongst trinitarians as to how it should be translated. All I will show is that it does not teach Yahushua existed as the one true elohim YHWH. I will quote a Greek scholar, Spiros Zodiates. The Complete Word Study New Testament pages 920-921.

"Many times Theos occurs with the def. art. ho, but it is not so rendered in the translation because in English we never refer to God as the God except if He is designated as belonging to someone specifically such as the God of Abraham (Matt.22:32). In many instances when the def. art. ho occurs before Theos, God, particular reference is made to God the Father, making the distinction in the personalities of the Trinity evident. For example, John 1:1b, And the Word was (en) with (pros [4314]) God (ton Theon) The def. art. here designates the Father. The word (Logos[3056])is Jesus Christ in His pre-incarnate existence as one personality of the Trinity and the God was God the Father. In the third statement of John 1:1, and the Word was God, the word God, Theos, is without the art. and is used as a predicate, stating the Word was God equal in meaning to the adj. divine. Therefore, Theos, not having the def. art. before it, cannot be the subj. Only if it did have the definite art. before it, could it be interchangeable with the subj. ho Logos, the Word. Furthermore, the indef. art. a could not be added in the English making it "and the Word was a God". This translation would make the verse declare that the Bible teaches polytheism." [end quote].

Now that is a mouthful, but did you hear what this "3 in 1" believer stated? The Theos in the third part of John 1:1 is used as an adjective, describing the word, not being the word. You see he is honest enough to admit the word and God are not interchangeable; therefore the word is not equated with God. God is simply used as an adjective to describe the word. Note his reason for not translating it "the word was a god". He did not say because the Greek grammar wouldn’t allow it, but because in his belief it would teach polytheism, which, of course, it would not. In fact many translators have chosen to translate it "the word was a god" or "the word was divine." This fact is hidden from most Christians and some in the "names" groups who are misled into believing a "2 in 1" elohim. To say John 1:1 teaches the Word was Elohim would go against so many of the black and white passages in the scripture and contradict the Greek grammar itself according to many Greek scholars.

Well, if this doctrine of YHWH becoming a man, isn’t taught in Scripture and wasn’t believed by the Israelites, where did it come from? I believe the answer is found in the book of Acts. Please read Acts 14:8-18. Here we have Paul and Barnabas performing miracles among pagans. Listen to their response in verse 11. "The gods have come down to us in the likeness of men."! In fact, they called Barnabas, Zeus, and Paul, Hermes (RSV) and wanted to sacrifice to them but Paul and Barnabas tore their garments and persuaded the crowd to turn from these vain things. Now I would like to ask a question. When Yahushua performed miracles and even raised the dead, do you ever find such an abhorrent response among the Jews? The answer is an emphatic NO!! The Jews understood it would be blasphemy, but the heathen were used to this kind of idolatry. They had many elohim and worshipped men as elohim. The Jews on the other hand had knowledge of the one true Elohim. This concept of Yahushua being elohim in the flesh does not come out of the scriptures, but the minds of men. The fact that Yahushua was worshipped does not indicate he is YHWH as the author alludes to. If that were the case then we would have many people who are YHWH. There are many places in scripture where men were worshipped, but never as the almighty. If anyone doubts this, I can furnish you with a list of occurrences.

I could quote several other clear scriptures but for lack of space this will have to do. My hope is that no one who reads this will be confused about who is the only true Elohim.

For anyone wishing to discuss this further with me, please write me at: John Zecca P.O. Box 476 Seligman, Mo 65745 and I’ll get with you as soon as I can. ~~


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